Originally Posted by
ep1c_fail
Almost all polities can be said to have been a consequence of a "stitch-up" between elites (ahem James VI) somewhere down the line. Now tell me how the Kingdom of Scotland was itself a construct of organic democratic choice(s) and not a feudal "stitch-up" between monarchs, nobles and clerics?
Of course, all Dark Age feudal monarchies were undemocratic, and were not constructed with the interests of the average person in mind. However, I think there's a strong argument for considering them legitimate entities when looked at in the context of their times. Under a feudal system, the role of the lord is to protect his subjects, which is ultimately possible only through allegiance with a higher liege lord, and this was the ultimate role of the monarch - to be the ultimate protector of the realm. The details of the fusion of the kingdom of Dal Riada and that of Pictland is lost to the mists of time so we don't know its precise character (conquest, treaty, absorption through other means), but it's fair to say that, by the standards of the time, the creation of the kingdom was seen as legitimate and the Scottish king came to be seen by his earls and by the Pope as the legitimate ruler as ordained by God. 'By the standards of the time' being the key point here - the Acts of Union in 1707 were in a post-Westphalian sovereignty and post-Glorious Revolution period, which means even at the time they were widely seen as outrageous and unjust by Scots - we know this from detailed contemporary sources which record riots in the streets. The poet Robert Burns, not known for being an avid nationalist, was still bitter about it nearly 100 years later, penning the famous line 'we were bought and sold for English gold'.
Feudal kingdoms are not "nation states" (lol). If you want to know where Scotland's rights and democracy
actually come from, see the reforms acts of 1832, 1864, 1884, 1918 and 1928. Funny too though, that after having spent so long denying your nationalist credentials, you've now openly resorted to blood and soil arguments.
It's not a 'blood and soil' argument to state the fact that Scotland has existed as a geographical and political entity for more than 1000 years - it's just context I like to present to British Nationalists who try to deny Scotland's right to assert nationhood based on the constitutional arrangements of the past 300 years. Of course, neither the present constitutional arrangements nor the history of the past 1000 years are relevant to modern democracy - if Scotland today wishes to be an independent country then we should have that right. As for whether nation states existed in the Medieval period, Anthony Smith makes a convincing case for medieval nations to be regarded as part of a family of linked geographical/identity groups of which modern, democratic nation states are just the latest iteration in an evolving series which stretches back quite a long way, but that's a discussion for another occasion.
Your avatar says [you are a Medieval romanticist]. Scotland was a nation [only] in the medieval era.
Did it occur to you that the focus of this website might have influenced my choice of avatar? Or do you think I go around advertising my passing interest in galloglaich outside the confines of this *checks notes* military history gaming forum?
Scotland continues to be a nation today, just not an independent one. We were
de jure independent until 1707 which is closer to the American Revolutionary War than the Medieval era.