
Originally Posted by
Astaroth
Quoting the guy himself, this is quite ironic:
His statistics are a prime example of making the numbers fit the narrative. Let me give a few examples:
What does that actually mean? Did those people lose wealth? No. They are just making less on top of what they already own. Their income decreased -- does that mean it went down gradually? Does that mean it happened to be, in the randomly chosen year 2005, 26% lower than in 1996? Does that mean income relative to their wealth? Total income? Adjusted for inflation?
But that's not even the biggest issue here. In more practical terms, many things happened between 1996 and 2005. 1996 could have been a boom year -- in fact, there were various bubbles going on. 2005 is after the dot-com crash. And so on, and so forth.
This guy is using carefully chosen statistics, combined with a few partisan statements about everyone who happens to disagree, to support his fairly obvious agenda.
The same goes for his other statistics. They might very well be true, but he is misrepresenting their meaning and/or intentionally presenting them in a way to support his own bias:
That means absolutely nothing. "Most of the working people"? What does that mean? "At some point by 1991"? Again, what does that mean? This includes any number of things. Highly qualified people starting in a low-paid position and quickly working their way up. People generally earning more than they did before simply due to getting older/rising up in the ranks slowly. People at one point in time having a momentarily higher income for various reasons, such as selling a house et al.
Tl;dr: having a momentarily "top 40%" (in itself nothing special whatsoever to begin with) earning at one point within 16 years means jack all.
Once again playing around with percentages. Let's decipher what he says here. Quintile means 1/5, i.e. 20%.
So we have the bottom 20% of income earners in 1975.
Of those, 5% were still there in 1991. Does that mean 5% of the 20% (i.e. 1% of the total income earners) or merely 1/4 of the original 20%? I assume the latter, but it's far from clear.
Another 29% of the bottom 20% from 1975 were now in the top 20%. Sounds impressive, eh? Except it isn't. 29% of 20% is 5.8% of all income earners. This means that only about 5% of the income earners manage to work their way up from the bottom quintile to the top quintile.
Still, not that bad, right? Except for the fact that it includes all those who just graduated and started working, all those in low-wage internship programs etc. are included. In other words, you could be a Harvard graduate, son of two millionaires and start out as a low-paid NGO worker after graduating ("bottom quintile in income") only to soon shoot up to a high-paying job. Granted, that's not the norm.
But you have to keep in mind that the 5% of the whole income earners we are talking about are mostly not people who worked their way up through hard work, dedication and brains.
It's mostly people who simply started in a fairly low-paying job due to being new at their job, only to be essentially guaranteed a much better paying job few years in the future. This is not Joe Shmoe self-made small business owner, this is mostly graduate A who was never going to stay in the bottom quintile to begin with.