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December 02, 2010, 12:11 PM
#1
Legal Domination same as Traditional one??
Now for those of you who studied, are currently studying or might study in the future some sort of political/social science these terms will sound really familiar.
Back when Weber described his ''ideal types'' he made a clear distinction between the three basic dominations
-Traditional One
-Charismatic One
-Legal/Rational One
So, he saw the traditional one as ''a domination resting in the belief of the sanctity of tradition that ruled from ancient times and in the legitimacy of those marked by such tradition to rule''.
He saw the Rational one as ''Resting in the belief that orders and rights are legally justified, being that legal process the result of rational decisions''.
My question is: Aren't we ''modern countries'' just another form of traditionalism? I mean, given the relativity of the term ''rational'' we can very much say that what we see as rational, as Weber would put it wertrational and zweckrational, might be only a point of view of our ethnocentric ''western'' culture.
Therefore what we have right now is nothing more than a very ''perfected'' traditionalist system. Our ''ancient beliefs'' being Democracy, Human Rights and separation of powers.
Disscus...
(I took my liberties while translating some definitions, but I guess that the ''spirit'' of said terms is saved, feel free to criticize
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Last edited by Claudius Gothicus; December 02, 2010 at 12:21 PM.
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