When did Britain become the largest empire in the world?

[♔Goodguy1066♔]

And who did she surpass?
Quite a simple question really, in what year (approx.) did the British empire become the largest empire in the world, and what was the largest empire before Britain? I can't seem to find the answers on wikipedia, so I'd appreciate your help. Thanks in advanced!

[Helm]

It will have been sometime after the Napolenoic Wars and largest empire around before then will have belonged to Spain I imagine though I could be wrong.

[Farnan]

It surpassed the Spanish, Dutch and French for a few reasons.

1) It was an island continent. This meant that the Wars of Europe were not on British soil and Britain could avoid them if it wished. This also meant they can focus on their navy (the tool of Imperialism) and keep a realitively small army because their navy could prevent an invasion.

2) Britain was a fairly stable country with a good deal of centralization. It was centralized earlier than France, far more centralized than the Dutch and far more stable than Spain. This meant it was able to more efficently use its resources than France, the Dutch and the Spanish.

3) The Napoleonic Wars ended the Spanish Empire. With the fall of Spain during the wars the majority of its colonial holdings rebelled and declared independence which made the Spanish Empire a mere shade of its former self.

4) Luck. A storm defeated the Spanish Armada preventing an early fall, the mere fact they were an island, and they had a good run of Generals and Admirals.

5) A strong middle class. Unlike Spain and France which didn't really have a middle class, being made up of an upper class and a dirt poor lower class, the British had a relatively strong middle class which meant a better merchant community and a more stable government.

[Babur]

It surpassed the Spanish, Dutch and French for a few reasons.

1) It was an island continent. This meant that the Wars of Europe were not on British soil and Britain could avoid them if it wished. This also meant they can focus on their navy (the tool of Imperialism) and keep a realitively small army because their navy could prevent an invasion.

2) Britain was a fairly stable country with a good deal of centralization. It was centralized earlier than France, far more centralized than the Dutch and far more stable than Spain. This meant it was able to more efficently use its resources than France, the Dutch and the Spanish.

3) The Napoleonic Wars ended the Spanish Empire. With the fall of Spain during the wars the majority of its colonial holdings rebelled and declared independence which made the Spanish Empire a mere shade of its former self.

4) Luck. A storm defeated the Spanish Armada preventing an early fall, the mere fact they were an island, and they had a good run of Generals and Admirals.

5) A strong middle class. Unlike Spain and France which didn't really have a middle class, being made up of an upper class and a dirt poor lower class, the British had a relatively strong middle class which meant a better merchant community and a more stable government.

This+rep

Would like to add though,what about the Seven Years War? since didn't that ensure Britain's dominance in North America albeit briefly?

[Ludicus]

It surpassed the Spanish, Dutch and French for a few reasons.

Surpassed the...Dutch?... Colonial empires?
Well,
The first largest colonial empire in 1700 was the Spanish empire (the second largest, the Portuguese empire)
Then came the British empire.

Spoiler Alert, click show to read: 

The largest colonial empires, 1700 to 1763.

The Napoleonic Wars ended the Spanish Empire

Well, in fact, because Spain was cut off from its colonies during the Peninsular War, it seems to me that Portugal was the second largest colonial empire at the time - by the Treaty of Madrid, 1750, Brazil achieved its present boundaries- bar minor adjustements - half of the land of the entire continent, the equal of all Spanish colonies put together.

[Claudius Gothicus]

5) A strong middle class. Unlike Spain and France which didn't really have a middle class, being made up of an upper class and a dirt poor lower class, the British had a relatively strong middle class which meant a better merchant community and a more stable government.

Well, France did have quite a big middle class, thing is they were far too rebellious and the whole 'middle class' was a made up of very different groups that pursued very different goals, to actually establish a long lasting Bourgeois Republic or Constitutional Monarchy like what happen in Britain.

Change in France often came in the form of violent revolutions sparked by a disenchanted group inside the middle class.

Spain in the other hand was a completly different story, it was quite ed up by the mid XIX century.

[jackwei]

It is hard possibly 1919 is when Britain had the biggest colonial empire in history i would say. Or it can be argued by 1914 the british empire as already the largest by then not to sure on that one though

[René Artois]

It surpassed the Spanish, Dutch and French for a few reasons.

1) It was an island continent. This meant that the Wars of Europe were not on British soil and Britain could avoid them if it wished. This also meant they can focus on their navy (the tool of Imperialism) and keep a realitively small army because their navy could prevent an invasion.

2) Britain was a fairly stable country with a good deal of centralization. It was centralized earlier than France, far more centralized than the Dutch and far more stable than Spain. This meant it was able to more efficently use its resources than France, the Dutch and the Spanish.

3) The Napoleonic Wars ended the Spanish Empire. With the fall of Spain during the wars the majority of its colonial holdings rebelled and declared independence which made the Spanish Empire a mere shade of its former self.

4) Luck. A storm defeated the Spanish Armada preventing an early fall, the mere fact they were an island, and they had a good run of Generals and Admirals.

5) A strong middle class. Unlike Spain and France which didn't really have a middle class, being made up of an upper class and a dirt poor lower class, the British had a relatively strong middle class which meant a better merchant community and a more stable government.

6. A stiff upper lip!

[Niles Crane]

It surpassed the Spanish, Dutch and French for a few reasons.

1) It was an island continent. This meant that the Wars of Europe were not on British soil and Britain could avoid them if it wished. This also meant they can focus on their navy (the tool of Imperialism) and keep a realitively small army because their navy could prevent an invasion.

2) Britain was a fairly stable country with a good deal of centralization. It was centralized earlier than France, far more centralized than the Dutch and far more stable than Spain. This meant it was able to more efficently use its resources than France, the Dutch and the Spanish.

3) The Napoleonic Wars ended the Spanish Empire. With the fall of Spain during the wars the majority of its colonial holdings rebelled and declared independence which made the Spanish Empire a mere shade of its former self.

4) Luck. A storm defeated the Spanish Armada preventing an early fall, the mere fact they were an island, and they had a good run of Generals and Admirals.

5) A strong middle class. Unlike Spain and France which didn't really have a middle class, being made up of an upper class and a dirt poor lower class, the British had a relatively strong middle class which meant a better merchant community and a more stable government.

But... the OP didn't ask why. He wanted to know when it became the largest empire. Your post is completely irrelevant and I don't know why you took the time to write it.

[Farnan]

It did, but that was won at least partly as a result of #1 . Britain could focus more effort on the war in the Americas because France also had to worry about the war in Europe.

[♔hammeredalways♔]

totally we have traditionally tried to stay out of Europe (some would say even encourage and fund the in fighting as it allowed us to expand)

Luck or act of God?

[Babur]

It did, but that was won at least partly as a result of #1 . Britain could focus more effort on the war in the Americas because France also had to worry about the war in Europe.

weren't some of those involved in the American Revolution, veterans of the Seven Years War? .

[G-Megas-Doux]

weren't some of those involved in the American Revolution, veterans of the Seven Years War? .

Yes because there were a lot of settlers livingg in America.

[Carach]

It did, but that was won at least partly as a result of #1 . Britain could focus more effort on the war in the Americas because France also had to worry about the war in Europe.

likewise we lost North America because we had to focus on the threat of the french and spanish at home. (simplistic i know, but this on a strategic level ultimately kept more of our ships at home to repel the ongoing threat of invasion, which meant not as much support for America, lose naval dominance, lose ability to resupply, leads to surrender as im sure ur aware)

bastards

anyway yea, the British Empire reached its fullest extent after ww1 if one includes the mandates. i guess (if one considers it by landmass rather than other factors - political etc)

though the 'informal empire' was also huge during the 19th century. One could easily say we dominated South America and other regions through sheer economic pressure (much as the Americans did/do post-ww2) European powers (France and Britain especially) also had immense influence over the Ottoman Empire, essentially being responsible for its economy post-Paris Conference in the second half of the 19th century..

I am quite surprised the unification of Germany wasn't prevented as some can say were the superstate of europe in all, but name who threatened the balance of power due her capabilties of competing with any rival in the world by seizing colonies in Africa and Asia.

Perhaps down to Britain trying to keep out of european affairs, also the fact that Bismark was a very astute diplomat. A guy i really admire - also responsible for the system of alliances that was to stress european peace and stability (something it, and with a little help from him, did achieve until his removal from office and the beginning of ww1 a few years later - there was a balkan crisis some 20 years earlier that threatened such an outcome, but due to the alliances not being meddled with as the germans did for ww1, bismark coming off as the go-between, things were averted)

He was also against Germany posessing much of a colonial empire (such statements would have alleviated fears on the part of Britain, and to a lesser extent, France). Really the rise of Germany as an aggressive state only comes as Bismark was being forced out of office at the end of his career (he didn't get on with the new Kaiser all that much)

One must also consider the very closely related families involved at the top of these states. Cousins and nephews all over the place. The royal family that ruled Britain also in some form ruled most of the other states in europe, or at the very least had reasonably large influence inside them via family members. It was actually in danger of becoming majorly inbred by the time ww1 come about. People were starting to 'marry down' as a result.

[Herakleios]

It reached it's maximum extent after World War I, if I recall correctly; but it virtually became the most powerful maritime empire right after the Napoleonic Wars, since there was no serious competition for them any longer.

2) Britain was a fairly stable country with a good deal of centralization. It was centralized earlier than France, far more centralized than the Dutch and far more stable than Spain. This meant it was able to more efficently use its resources than France, the Dutch and the Spanish.

Depends on the period, obviously not during the time of the civil wars, probably only after the Glorious Revolution did they achieve a degree of stability. At its peak in the 16th century,Spain had a considerable more stable and centralized state than contemporaneous England. After the quashing of the comuneros revolt in the 1520's there was hardly any nation in Europe as politically stable and centralized as Spain, let alone its only serious rival France, who were plagued by religious wars and were unable to harness their superior manpower resources for this reason. This state of affairs remained into Philip II's reign, who managed to set up an even more effective bureaucracy.During most Louis XIV's reign, France was also more stable than England after the Frondes revolt. Other than that, great post, sums up everything nicely.

[Farnan]

Depends on the period, obviously not during the time of the civil wars, probably only after the Glorious Revolution did they achieve a degree of stability. At its peak in the 16th century,Spain had a considerable more stable and centralized state than contemporaneous England. After the quashing of the comuneros revolt in the 1520's there was hardly any nation in Europe as politically stable and centralized as Spain, let alone its only serious rival France, who were plagued by religious wars and were unable to harness their superior manpower resources for this reason. This state of affairs remained into Philip II's reign, who managed to set up an even more effective bureaucracy.During most Louis XIV's reign, France was also more stable than England after the Frondes revolt. Other than that, great post, sums up everything nicely.

Of course, however it only became a great empire after the Glorius Revolution (it owned some American land then but were far inferior to say the French and Spanish).

[Trax]

Quite a simple question really, in what year (approx.) did the British empire become the largest empire in the world, and what was the largest empire before Britain?

Late 19th century?
Russia?

[Farnan]

To add to my earlier post.

Between 1763 and 1940, when Britain was on the rise, the British had the same general government, and all reforms were internal. France went through 8 different governments (Kingdom of France, National Convention, Directorate, First French Empire, Bourbon Restoration, Second French Republic, Second French Empire, Third French Republic). Spain went through 7 (and three civil wars) (Bourbon Kingdom, Bonaparte Kingdom, Bourbon Kingdom, Savoy Kingdom, First Spanish Republic, Spanish Restoration, Second Spanish Republic).

[Herakleios]

I'd say the Glorious revolution is an overall good point to pin the start of the first British imperial cycle down. Then the other most relevant moments of the "first" British empire were probably Clive's campaigns in India in the 1750's and then the Seven Year's War. Though they did get bogged down by the American revolution, this is commonly taken to be the end of the first British Imperial cycle, which was rather modest compared to the next, since Britain would only be a major power amongst others rather than the superpower it became after the Napoleonic Wars. Also, the decline of the Netherlands as a power and the financial edge Britain eventually gained over them are also noteworthy, the Fourth Anglo-Dutch War being a symbolic moment in their struggle.

[G-Megas-Doux]

I'd say the Glorious revolution is an overall good point to pin the start of the first British imperial cycle down. Then the other most relevant moments of the "first" British empire were probably Clive's campaigns in India in the 1750's and then the Seven Year's War. Though they did get bogged down by the American revolution, this is commonly taken to be the end of the first British Imperial cycle, which was rather modest compared to the next, since Britain would only be a major power amongst others rather than the superpower it became after the Napoleonic Wars. Also, the decline of the Netherlands as a power and the financial edge Britain eventually gained over them are also noteworthy, the Fourth Anglo-Dutch War being a symbolic moment in their struggle.

Well the begining of the 17th Century was really the successful begining of the collonialism, which was aided by the Crowns of Scotland, England and Ireland all being held by the same person. The founding of East India Company because of Elisabeth I providing a warrent. It grew throughout even under the Commonwealth, the founding of a permanent British Army helped with the growth. The accelaration happened when the British utilised its advantage of being a Naval Empire by increasing investment in the Navy. Ultimatly the 18th Century was helped by the Industrial Revolution which allowed Britain to equal the population of France despite being a quarter of the size. It is likely to have overtook Spain during the Victorian period as this is when much of the Vicroy parts of the Empire rebeled. Russia was larger for the most part until the turn into the twentieth Century. Following WWI until WWII the Empire became the biggest in history so far surpassing the Mongol Empire. Remember it only became an Empire in reign of Victoria and was only an Empire because of the requirements in India.

The collaps was a result of political changes over the twentieth century after WWII for the thirty years.