There was this disgusting person who made said this:
"Hookers/Prostitutes are those who used sex to gain services, money, or for making things to her advantage, right? If that is the case, then a wife who would not allow the husband to sleep with her is a hooker. What's that? She has no motive? She should know perfectly well that, practically speaking, a marriage cannot survive without sex. Thus, by not allowing her husband to sleep with her, she is a prostitute. She may not be actively seeking out services, but she is using sex to her advantage; a man who needs sex but is good enough to not have an affair would always be at the disadvantage; the man's needs are at stake here."
This statement was made by a person close to me and is about another person that is also close to me, so yes I am quite mad at this quote.
Now, obviously, this argument was used to support a bigoted viewpoint. However - and this creeps me out - I, trying to be as gentlemanly as possible, might have made a same statement. You might have heard a joking statements made by a gentleman about how "I cannot do so and so because my wife would then not let me sleep with her" The point is, I just know that my quote is different from the first quote; it's just that I cannot point out the difference. And this creeps me out a little; I don't want to be in the same category as this very rude person.
So here's what I want to know:
1. How do you refute the first quote?
2. How is the quote from the less sexist gentleman fundamentally different from that of the bigoted person?




Reply With Quote












