I was always certain that the hoplites didn't use the spear overhand because they fought in phalanx, but that the hoplites fought in phalanx because they used the spear overhand. The reason is that when useing the spear overhand the hoplite exposes his entire right side that would be otherwise protected by his arm and weapon. He isn't also able to block strikes on his right side with his weapon, he would so if he uses the spear underhand.
So, the best protection for his right side would be the shield of his neighbour - if that uses a large round shield, not a longshield which were more coustom during the Bronze Age. For that both fighters had to stand very close togther; and if the second man is useing a spear too, he needed protection by his neighbour - and so on until we have a phalanx.
The only thing that was unclear to me was why?. Why did the Greeks (and other people) started to use the spear overhand at some time in the early Iron Age. This manner seems to have disadvantages only. Until I saw this picutre last night in an EB battle:
You can see that the only protection against an overhand attack is to raise the shild hould over your head. But with this you expose your body and can be hit by the fighter next to the one who is attacking you. You can also see how well protected the hoplite is against underhand attacks. The only real target he offers are his legs - and these are protected as well.







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