From what I understand - using Cecil Roth (1964) as a source - the seeds for the expulsion of the Jews from England by King Edward I in 1290 were planted earlier during the reign of his father, King Henry III. The Jews weren't allowed to live in England again until invited back by Oliver Cromwell in the 1650s, although I believe Queen Elizabeth I had a Jewish physician.
Henry repeatedly bankrupted the state treasury with his voracious spending habits (including building campaigns) and, as a result, taxed the Jews up to the hilt with tallages. The King's Jews were an easy target, being the protected "property" of the king who greased along the English economy as financiers providing nearly all its necessary money lending. Unlike the Christian French and Italian bankers and financiers resident in England, the Jews were not forbidden to charge interest rates on loans (usury) by papal decree, hence they made considerable profits. Those profits usually found their way into the king's coffers, which weakened the Jews' financial powers considerably. At the same time they were occasionally the targets of Christian mobs, yet earlier the civil authorities and king's sheriffs had always been keen to protect the Jews from such rioters.
When Edward took the right of usury from the Jews in 1275 at the behest of the papacy, everything started to go downhill for them. The attempt to have them become artisans, merchants, and farmers failed miserably, largely because the guilds that handled all the various crafts and trades in the towns and cities were organized as Christian brotherhoods requiring a religious oath the Jews could not make. They also had no experience with farming since they were not allowed to own lands beforehand. The Jews became a useless burden that no longer produced money for the King, so he had them expelled in a political move that was hailed as very popular.
Does anyone see it differently? That is, the reasons for their expulsion?