While I appreciate the effort, I'm afraid it's a lost cause. For instance, the Bible is much longer than the Qur'an. And did you take into account the reasons for the violence? And how did you define violence? Who is behind the violence? God acting on His own to teach man a lesson? Or man believing he acted with God's blessing?
For instance we have this verse from the Bible:
"Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him.
But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves."
Numbers 31:17-18
And then Qur'an has it's own version:
The only reward of those who make war upon Allah and His messenger and strive after corruption in the land will be that they will be killed or crucified, or have their hands and feet on alternate sides cut off, or will be expelled out of the land. Such will be their degradation in the world, and in the Hereafter theirs will be an awful doom;
Verse 5:33
Which one of the above would you define as violent? And to what extent is it violent?
And did you look at it in the context of the passage? And, last, but not least, when you take into account the circumstances preached by both books, can anything done to a nonbeliever really be classified as "cruel"?