This time around, we will analyze William Lane Craig's incoherent and contradictory analysis of animal sentience. Source material. Shall we begin? I love reading material from this particularly dishonest apologist. Oh, and I really do mean dishonest. Do I need hard examples of dishonesty? Here is one: in a debate with Michael Tooley, Tooley presented the inductive version of the problem of evil. You know what William Lane Craig's main objection was? It was towards an early, disputed proof of induction that Michael Tooley was using. However, the problem is that he then went on to say that the conclusion would not follow from a Bayesian proof of induction. Except for the fact that it does. And except for the fact that there are a multitude of Bayesian forms of the inductive problem of evil. You know, he does boast often about how he is a "professional academic philosopher", and he is so wrapped into apologetics that he simply must have been aware of the fact that you can formulate the inductive problem of evil with Bayesian proofs of induction just as logically, and so other defenses against the problem of evil are necessary. So, yeah, he is dishonest.
Oh, and now to the actual material that I set out to criticize:
Level 3 is the awareness that the self is in pain, i.e. made possible through the ability to self-identify; to be self-aware. Level 2 is awareness of being in pain and thus experiencing it. This is the key thing here. Unless he has a warped, incoherent idea of mental states, I cannot concede that he would deny that L2 necessitates an awareness of being in pain--and thus the experience of it--but is just lacking the awareness that there is the self that is aware of her experiencing of pain.Originally Posted by William Lane Craig
There is a key difference between awareness that oneself is in pain, and awareness of being in pain. Where is the moral significance of the former? Why does it have primacy over the latter, and why is the latter insignificant? It seems the fundamental moral principle applies in both cases: they experience things like pain, hence we derive the prescriptive fact that we should not cause them unnecessary suffering. This is why it is permissible to chop up plants, grass, and step on insects. And this is why it is not permissible to chop up cows, other cattle, and break the legs of chickens to haul them easier across a distance.Originally Posted by William Lane Craig
He just literally just said that L3 is L2 with the addition of the awareness that the self is in pain. Then, ad hoc, he stated that animals are not really aware of the experience of pain, after already establishing that L2 entails exactly that; just without the L3 conditions of awareness that the self is experiencing pain. Second, how can he coherently say that there exists an experience of pain without an accompanying awareness of it? That makes no sense whatsoever. Remember: there is a distinction between awareness of experiencing pain and awareness of the self experiencing pain. The former being L2, the latter being L3. L2 being the case for animals, and L3 being the case for persons. If I am not aware of an experience, then I cannot be experiencing. So, do animals experience pain, or do they not? You just gave me two contradictory answers here, Bill. I take it should be obvious what kind of experience we are talking about; the only intelligible one, or the one at least worth talking about: the internal experience of something. I get the vibe that what he is really trying to conclude is that "animals don't really feel pain", as opposed to something unbelievably stupid like "only persons feeling pain matters because they are aware that there is a self involved in that experiencing of pain". I hope it is not the latter. Please, just do not be the latter. I am pretty sure it is the former, so in that case, it should be noted that he has utterly failed to establish the former. His argument for it is incoherent and contradictory. He is going against a known fact in folk psychology for a thousand years, and one known through harder sciences for at least one hundred--with an argument that isn't even consistent with itself.Originally Posted by William Lane Craig
This is not analogous at all. In the first scenario, he describes two neural pathways that causally explain two things: L2, the mental states of being in pain, and L3; that which allows for the awareness that the self is experiencing mental states. In the just quoted scenario, he talks first about something that is akin to L1: objective senses that process objective perceptual stimuli about external objects, and then only talks about L2 for the other neural pathway explained in the quote. Oh, and the last bolded part of the quote contains him self-admitting that my extended analysis of L2 is true; that there is an awareness-experience relationship. It is just what you are aware of that differs.Originally Posted by William Lane Craig
And now what about L2? He skipped over that entirely. What he just did here was use an example of L1 "seeing" to not-establish that the L2 status of animals is akin to this L1 state in both moral weight, and the apparent "fact" that they "are not really aware of being in pain". Are you serious?Originally Posted by William Lane Craig
More dishonesty. This precludes theories like a causal link between fundamental, foundational, intuitive, and cross-culturally agreed upon moral brute facts and their related superphysical abstract objects, from which this point we can reason out more complex moral belief systems. This also precludes notions like that it is of the nature of superphysical minds to have awareness of fundamental, foundational, intuitive, and cross-culturally agreed upon moral brute facts from which we can reason out more complex moral beliefs. And other theories of course. Of course, a serious debate arises regarding proposed epistemological problems of theories like the aforementioned, but the point is that he is acting as if atheism entails the cosmic coincidence; it does not. He is also begging the question against a posteriori accounts for the knowledge of the moral reality, and naturalist meta-ethics (the two usually go together). And while they certainly have problems of their own, they do not suffer the problem of the cosmic coincidence either. The usual objection I see Craig give to a posteriori and naturalistic accounts for the knowledge of and the status of the morality reality (respectively) is one that confuses the cause of moral belief with contents. I.E. he will point out there exists psychological and evolutionary theories that apparently sum up morality in an entirely naturalistic worldview, but these are theories about the causes of belief; they have naught to do with the contents of said beliefs. So, while it is true that this is an "advantage", it is also true that almost all secular meta-ethics enjoy this "advantage" too. So it is redundant.Originally Posted by William Lane Craig


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