You take 'a priori' too strictly. I use it here only to mean something inherent. For instance, there is nothing inherent in fifedom that requires serfdom. Similarly there is nothing inherent in serfdom that requires fiefdom or fractured sovereignty (see Russia). A priori (intrinsically), those two concepts are separate and we can apply one without having to apply the other. Country A could have serfs but strong central authority, while Country B could have many vassals and lords but no serfdom. Since both of those terms describe aspects of feudal society, we would call both Country A and Country B partially feudal. Do you have issue with that statement?
Yes but the Boyars never claimed separate sovereignty. That's the point of calling 19th century Russia a partially feudal society.In Russia the land was in the hands of the nobility, the boyars. In theory, the Czar was the owner of all land (if Im right in my memory) but in paractice the nobility owned the land and the peasents.





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