Yes, but that's a fan made map. Gondor only conquered a part of Harad, yes, but you can't use that map as proof...
In Akallabeth it is said that lands of Harad were very far south alnog the shores and also the Atlas of Middle-earth shows it far south.
Sanity, in an insane world, is insane.
~It is hard to fail, but it is worse never to have tried to succeed.~
-Roosevelt
You know that Tolkien never told anything about lands in south? Those maps are fan made. And don't think that David "Kraken" Day knows anything about those maps. Anyway I believe that parts which Gondor conquered were about 30-40% of whole Harad and thos eparts were most richest of Harad.
Still 30-40% isin't almost whole. As i said in "The fall of Numenor" and "Unfinished tales" it is said that there were lands and ports of Harad far south from Umbar.
Sanity, in an insane world, is insane.
~It is hard to fail, but it is worse never to have tried to succeed.~
-Roosevelt
Yes that pretty much shows Gondor's area as most clearest way
And it still isn't correct.Neither Gondor nor Arnor were in possession of Enedwaith-even the name suggests that.Enedwaith means Middle-lands.And the easternborders of the realm never reached Mitkwood or Lorien for that matter.Yes,they stretched to the inland Sea of Rhun but they ran not far from the Ash Mountains.Also when Gondor conquered Umbar(that happend several times)they never ruled more than the city itself and a few miles of the surroundings.And Umbar is the farthest South province of Gondor in the times of Atanatar Alcarin the Glorious(during his reign Gondor's might was at its highest).